Q. When you look at the Bible, intercourse before wedding is known as immoral. It’s called the sin of “fornication.” However the Bible offers no description (that i’ve seen) of why it is incorrect to own sex before wedding. In 1 Corinthians, as an example, Paul calls people who try this “sexually immoral.” But why, exactly why is it incorrect? Just just How could sex that is having a thing that all maried people do frequently, be unclean and immoral before two different people are hitched?
This might be a exceptional concern, because we don’t frequently look at the morality of a action to rely on its environment or context. If one thing is a thing that is good do, such as for example telling the facts, it must be great for everybody else, every-where to complete it. And if one thing is wrong, such as for instance striking someone else in anger and causing them physical damage, then it ought to be incorrect for everybody, in almost every context. Husbands and wives truly don’t get an exemption that permits them to take part in domestic physical physical violence.
Why does the Bible allow and encourage sex within wedding but state it is incorrect away from wedding? Why shouldn’t two different people whom love each other have the ability to show it in this way also when they aren’t married?